This is concerning to me because it seems deceitful. Sometimes, I think that maybe it was unintentional (like maybe they just used a keyword search, found a scripture that appeared to serve their premise, and never bothered to check the context). At other times, I feel that the context was deliberately ignored.
I am troubled when a scripture is quoted to support a doctrinal position that the verse really does not support. Why do you suppose we as a church do this sort of ad hoc proof texting?
FYI, The specific instance that set me off was from an RMN address in 1995.
In reading the chapter that the reference from Paul comes from it is clear to me that Paul was not talking about temple ordinances and yet his words are sandwiched to make it seam that he did.Scriptures identify other important prerequisites to eternal perfection. They relate to the ordinances and covenants of the temple.28 No accountable individual can receive exaltation in the celestial kingdom without the ordinances of the temple. Endowments and sealings are for our personal perfection and are secured through our faithfulness.29
This requirement also pertains to our ancestors. Paul taught “that they without us should not be made perfect.”30 Again, in that verse, the Greek term from which perfect was translated was a form of teleios.31
In latter-day revelation, the Lord was even more explicit. His prophet wrote: “My dearly beloved brethren and sisters, let me assure you that these are principles in relation to the dead and the living that cannot be lightly passed over, as pertaining to our salvation. For their salvation is necessary and essential to our salvation. … They without us cannot be made perfect—neither can we without our dead be made perfect.”32
Am I being too picky? What am I not seeing here?